Blood Bank QBank -

Our question bank has 203 multiple choice questions on all the essential blood transfusion topics. If you are planning on taking ASCP, I will recommend using our question bank. Topics includes ABO genetics, ABO blood group, Rh blood system, Other blood groups, component storage, antibody identification, antibody screening, crossmatch, donor requirements, ABO blood typing and more.

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Bloodbank Finals

1 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

1. How many platelets should platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis contain?

A. 5x10^11

B. 3x10^10

C. 3x10^11

D. 5x10^10

2 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

2. What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?

A. A antigen

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

3 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

3. Which autoantibody is associated with early abortion?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-PP1pk and anti-P

4 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

4. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB, 25% Group O, 25% Group A and 25% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group A and 50% Group O

5 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by lowering zeta potential and increasing the rate of antibody uptake?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

6 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

6. How often can you donate platelets?

A. 24 times a year

B. 24 hours

C. 8 Weeks

D. 2 weeks

7 / 205

Category: History

7. A term used to describe the Middle colonies because of their fertile soil, ideal for farming is known as?

A. Sufficient colonies

B. Bountiful colonies

C. flourbasket colonies

D. Breadbasket colonies

8 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

8. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. B negative

9 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

9. Vicia graminea has specificity for which antigen?

A. N antigen

B. M antigen

C. A1 antigen

D. H antigen

Kidd, Duffy, MNS blood groups are known for showing dosage

10 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

10. Which of the following blood group antigens are known for showing dosage?

A. MNS

B. Duffy

C. Kidd

D. All of the above

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Category: Bloodbank

11. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of Cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 14 year s

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

12 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

12. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is positive.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which donor unit should be selected?

	Immediate Spin	37^oC	Antiglobulin Phase
A positive	0	Not tested	Not tested
A negative	0	0	0; Check cell 2+
AB negative	0	0	0; Check cell 0
B negative	2+	2+	2+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

13 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

13. What tests are performed before a blood transfusion is done?

A. ABO Typing and crossmatch

B. Antibody screen and crossmatch

C. Type and screen, DAT

D. ABO, Rh, Antibody Screen and Crossmatch

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Category: Bloodbank

14. Which antigen has a receptor for Haemophilus influenza?

A. Yta

B. Cra

C. Kna

D. AnWj

15 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

15. What is the shelf life of blood component with CPDA-1 anticoagulant?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

16 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

16. Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets?

A. 3 x 10^10

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3 x 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

17 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

17. How long must a donor wait after whole blood donation?

A. 16 Weeks

B. 24 Weeks

C. 56 days

D. 3 months

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

18 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

18. One unit of donor platelets derived from whole blood should yield how many platelets?

A. 5.5 X 10^11

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3.0 X 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

19 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

19. Which antibody can be neutralized with pooled plasma to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-Ch (Chido)

20 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

20. What is the temperature range for maintaining platelets during shipping?

A. 1-18°C

B. Room temperature

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-14°C

21 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

21. Which D phenotype is suspected when a seemingly D-positive person makes anti-D after transfusion with D-positive blood?

A. Partial D

B. Weak D

C. Rh null

D. D deletion

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Category: Bloodbank

22. What genes are necessary for the production of Le^bAntigens?

A. Se genes

B. Le and Se genes

C. H genes

D. H and Se genes

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth

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Category: Bloodbank

23. Which blood group antigen is well developed at birth?

A. P

B. Lu

C. Kidd

D. P1

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Category: Bloodbank

24. Which gene controls the expression of C, c, E, e expression?

A. RHCD

B. RHD

C. RHCE

D. RHDC

25 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

25. Which of the following potentiator removes water from the test system and concentrates antibody?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

26 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

26. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 2 days

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

D. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 24 hours

27 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

27. Which immunohematology test is performed to determine in vitro sensitization of RBC’s?

A. Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

B. Direct Antiglobulin Test

C. Weak D

D. Elution

MMM

28 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

28. Blood proteins produced by the immune system in response to a foreign substance in the body are called?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Immunogens

D. Immune cells

29 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

29. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hemoglobin of 6g/dl?

A. Washed RBCS

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. RBCs

30 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

30. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with Adsol (AS-1, AS-3, orAS-5) anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

31 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

31. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Decrease in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

32 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

32. Which antibody is neutralized in vitro by Lewis substance?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Lewis

33 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

33. Identify the antibody.

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

34 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

34. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of whole blood?

A. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 32 days

B. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 35 days

C. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 45 days

D. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 21 days

35 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

35. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	3+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

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Category: Bloodbank

36. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen.

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	0

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

37 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

37. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C		E		c		e
+		+		+		0		0

A. R2: DCe;

B. R1 : DcE

C. r’’: dce

D. r: dCE

38 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

38. Which blood group system does Anti-Js^a and Anti-Js ^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

39 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

39. What are the four main blood groups in the ABO blood group system?

A. Group A, B, C, AB

B. Group A, B, O, AB

C. Group A, B, D, AB

D. Group A, O,B, AD

40 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

40. What antigens are present in a person with blood type O?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

41 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

41. In an emergency, what blood type should be given to Rh-negative females of childbearing age?

A. O Postive

B. O negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

42 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

42. Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and concentrate towards the bottom of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. 4+

E. Negative

43 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

43. All cells pass through the gel media forming a cell button at the bottom of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

44 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

44.

A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	+	+	0

A. Dce; D, c, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. DcE; D, c, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

45 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

45. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

A. DCe

B. DCE

C. dce

D. dCe

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

46 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

46. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a female donor?

A. Temperature of 99.5 F

B. Hematocrit of 28%

C. Weighs 110Ibs

D. Blood pressure 130/70mm Hg

47 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

47. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of frozen red blood cells?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 10 years

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 10 years

48 / 205

Category: Physics

48. A term used to describe the study of motion is called?

A. Velocity

B. Mechanics

C. Kinematics

D. Acceleration

49 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

49. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

50 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

50. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a platelet count of <10.000u/L?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Platelets

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

51 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

51. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

52 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

52. Which donor RBC unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

53 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

53. Which of the following would be a cause permanent deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Recipient of human growth hormone

C. History of Chagas’ disease

D. All of the above

54 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

54. What are the 2 stages of agglutination reaction?

A. Sensitization and Lattice formation

B. Attachment and bonding

C. Sensitization and agglutination

D. Sensitization and Prozoning

55 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

55. Many small clumps with a cloudy background. Grade the reaction

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

56 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

56. Which blood group system is associated with McLeod phenotype?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

57 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

57. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group AO and 50% Group BO

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% Group O

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

58 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

58. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (deglycerolized)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 hours after thawing

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 8 hours after thawing

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

D. Storage 1-10°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

59 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

59. Which antibody serologically mimics Anti-C and Anti D?

A. Anti-C

B. Anti-E

C. Anti-D

D. Anti- G

60 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

60. What is biphasic hemolysin?

A. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement at 4°C

B. Binds to RBCs at low temperatures and activate complement at 37°C

C. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement

D. Activate complement at 37°C

61 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

61. Which gene controls the expression of D expression?

A. RHCE

B. RHCD

C. RHCD

D. RHD

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

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Category: Bloodbank

62. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin B?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

63 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

63. The Rh systems genes are?

A. RHAG and RHD

B. RHD and RHCE

C. RHCE and RHRAG

64 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

64. Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Anti Fya-b-

D. Anti-Jkb

65 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

65. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Hemophilia A disorder.

A. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Thawed Plasma

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

66 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

66. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

D. Decrease in 2-3BPG levels

67 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

67. Medium clumps with a slightly cloudy background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 3+

C. 2+

D. 1+

E. Negative

68 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

68. Which of the following are antibodies to high frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Lub, Anti-Kpb and Anti Jsb

69 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

69. Antigen that shows dosage must be rule out with?

A. Cold panel

B. Heterozygous

C. Homozygous cell

D. Auto adsorption

70 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

70. No clumps with a very cloudy background. Grade this reaction

A. 3+

B. Negative

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. 4+

71 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

71. What is the purpose of a crossmatch?

A. To detect the presence of antibodies in donor cells

B. To detect the presence of antigens in recipient's red blood cells against antibodies in donor units

C. To detect the presence of antibodies in recipient's serum against antigens in donor RBCs.

D. To prevent severe hemolytic anemia and death

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

72 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

72. A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following: temperature—39⁰C, pulse—53 bpm, blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg, hematocrit—38%. Which of the following exclusions apply to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Temperature too high

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

73 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

73. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Increase in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

74 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

74. How many drop(s) of a patient serum is added in reverse blood typing?

A. 4 drops

B. 1 drop

C. 5 drops

D. 2 drops

75 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

75. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature?

A. 4 deg. Celsuis

B. 37 deg. Celsuis

C. 24 deg. Celsuis

D. 18 deg. Celsuis

76 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

76. Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Donor Incarcerated for 10 days

C. Recipient of human growth hormone

D. Donor is HIV positive

77 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

77. What antigens are present in a person with type AB- blood?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

78 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

78.

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Duffy

B. Kidd

C. Kell

D. MNS

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth while P and Lutheran blood group system are poorly developed at birth

79 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

79. Which blood group antigen is poorly developed at birth?

A. P

B. MN

C. Kidd

D. Duffy

Duffy, MNS and Xga are destroyed by enzymes

80 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

80. Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A. Duffy

B. Rh

C. Kidd

D. Lewis

81 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

81. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch?

	Immediate spin
AB Negative	0
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. AB negative

B. A negative

C. B negative

82 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

82. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type AB make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A and B

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

83 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

83. Which is not included on a properly labeled specimen?

A. Date of admission

B. Two unique patient identifiers

C. Date and time of collection

D. Phlebotomist's initials

84 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

84.

When does a pretransfusion specimen expire?

A. 7 days

B. 3 Days

C. 2 days

D. 2 Weeks

85 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

85. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	3+	0

A. AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

86 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

86. What are the two ways ABO typing can be performed?

A. Forward and front type

B. Reverse and back typing

C. Forward and Inverse typing

D. Forward and reverse typing

87 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

87. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type O make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCs

Antibodies present in the serum

None

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

88 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

88. Which blood group system is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Kell

D. Anti-Jkb

89 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

89. Which of the following RBC abnormality is associated with Rh null syndrome?

A. Spherocytosis

B. Granulocytosis

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Elliptocytosis

90 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

90. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

91 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

91. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. O negative

92 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

92. Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concentrated near the top of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 2+

B. 1+

C. 4+

D. 3+

E. Negative

93 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

93. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with liver disease?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets

D. Granulocyte concentrates

94 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

94. ABO antibodies are

A. Naturally occurring and react at room temperature

B. Naturally occurring, activates complement, and reacts at 37oC

C. Acquired through blood transfusion and reacts at warmer temperature

95 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

95. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CPD anticoagulants?

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. 24 days

96 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

96. The only blood group system in which an individual have antibodies to antigens they lack, without any prior exposure of red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy is

A. Rh system

B. Lewis blood system

C. Duffy System

D. ABO blood system

97 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

97. What is being tested in forward typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

98 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

98. What is the temperature range for maintaining red blood cells and whole blood during shipping?

A. 20-24°C

B. 1-10°C

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-18°C

99 / 205

Category: Coagulation

99. A hereditary thrombocytes disorder that is caused by lack of functional GPIb-IX-V complexes on the platelet surface, and is associated with presence of large platelets, increased MPV, decreased aggregation response to ristocetin, and normal vWF: RCo, vWF: Ag?

A. Von Williebrand disease

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

D. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

100 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

100. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A and AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

101 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

101. Which blood group system do K and k antigens belong to?

A. Kell

B. Lutheran

C. Duffy

D. Kidd

102 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

102. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A,B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

103 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

103. What blood type is the universal donor?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

104 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

104. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with neutropenia (<500 WBC/mm³)?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

105 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

105. Solid button with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 4+

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. Negative

106 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

106. Which donor red blood cell unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. A negative

107 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

107. The antibody to this high prevalence antigen appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Sda

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-V

108 / 205

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108. Which of the following antibody is an IgG biphasic antibody in Donath-Landsteiner antibody test?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-P1

D. Lewis

109 / 205

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109. Unlike ABO antibodies, anti- D antibody is produced through exposure to D antigen through transfusion or pregnancy and can cause significant hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn (HDFN) or hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A. True

B. False

110 / 205

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110. Agglutination cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

111 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

111. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

112 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

112. What type of molecules are Rh antigens?

A. Glycophorins

B. Sugars

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

113 / 205

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113. Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes?

A. CMV

B. HIV

C. HCV

D. HAV

114 / 205

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114. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	4+	0	3+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

115 / 205

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115. Kernicterus is caused by effect of?

A. Hypobilirubinemia

B. Hyperbilirubinemia

C. Anemia

D. Diabetes

116 / 205

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116. Individuals with blood group O have

A. B antigens on their RBC's

B. A antigens on their RBC's

C. Anti-A antibody

D. Anti-A, B antibody

117 / 205

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117. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 6 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

Anti P is cold reactive antibody; while others are warm reactive antibodies.

118 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

118. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti Jka

B. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-S

D. Anti-P

119 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

119. Which antigens are strongly expressed on placental tissues?

A. Yta

B. Chido

C. Cromer

D. AnWj

120 / 205

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120. What is deferral period for aspirin?

A. 7 days

B. 5 days

C. 72 hours

D. 2 weeks

121 / 205

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121. What do Rh null cells lack?

A. A antigens

B. Lewis Antigens

C. Hemoglobin

D. Rh antigens

122 / 205

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122. A Clinical Laboratory Scientist(CLS) receives a specimen with the patient's name, medical record number, and date of collection printed on the label. What should the CLS do?

A. Accept the specimen for testing

B. Reject specimen and ask for redraw

123 / 205

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123. Rh antigens are proteins, unlike ABO antigens which are glycolipids.

A. False

B. True

124 / 205

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124. Which transfusion reactions present with fever, maculopapular rash, pancytopenia?

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

125 / 205

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125. The extract from seeds of Ulex Europeaus has specificity for?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. N antigen

D. M antigen

126 / 205

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126. An anticoagulant that chelates calcium to prevent clotting is called?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

127 / 205

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127. Rh antibodies is associated with which clinical condition?

A. Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

B. Addison disease

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Hemophilia

128 / 205

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128. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

Anti-P₁ is easily inhibited with P₁ substance(Hydatid cyst fluid)

129 / 205

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129. Which antibody is neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-P1

130 / 205

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130. Which blood group system do Anti-Fy^a and Anti-Fy^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

131 / 205

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131. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

132 / 205

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132. What units are given in massive transfusion?

A. 4 packed O negative red blood cells, 2 AB fresh frozen plasma and 1 O negative platelet apheresis

B. 4 packed red blood cells, 2 cryoprecipitate and 1 platelet apheresis

C. 2 packed red blood cells, 2 fresh frozen plasma and 1 platelet apheresis

133 / 205

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133. Which blood group antigen is located near the RBC membrane and present when S or s is inherited?

A. S antigen

B. G antigen

C. U Antigen

D. M antigen

134 / 205

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134. Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by reducing the zeta potential between RBCs?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

135 / 205

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135. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Sickle cell anemia?

A. Washed RBCS

B. RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Cryoprecipitate

136 / 205

Category: Uncategorized

136. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hemoglobin approximately by

A. 4 g/dL

B. 1 g/dL

C. 6 g/dL

D. 3 g/dL

137 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

137. Which antibody can be neutralized with human breast milk?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Lewis

138 / 205

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138. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

139 / 205

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139. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hematocrit by

A. 5%

B. 1%

C. 6%

D. 3%

140 / 205

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140. What blood type can Bombay phenotype individual receive?

A. Type O Negative

B. Blood from only Bombay individuals

C. Type O positive

D. Group AB

141 / 205

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141. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CP2D anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

142 / 205

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142. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hematocrit of 20%.

A. RBCs

B. Washed RBCs

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. Platelets

143 / 205

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143. Agglutinated cells disperse into gel media and are observed throughout the length of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

144 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

144. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

145 / 205

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145. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin A?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

146 / 205

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146. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type A make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. Anti C

D. Anti-A,B

147 / 205

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147. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

148 / 205

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148. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -28°C, expires in 1 year

149 / 205

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149. Which antigen is expressed when c and e are present on the same haplotype?

A. G antigen

B. f antigen

C. D antigen

D. E antigen

150 / 205

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150. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 8 hours after pooling

151 / 205

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151. Which Rh phenotype is written as D- - or -D- ?

A. Weak D

B. Rh null

C. D deletion

D. Partial D

152 / 205

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152. How long must a donor wait after plasma donation?

A. 7 days

B. 28 days

C. 8 Weeks

D. 24 hours

153 / 205

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153. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion.

IgA deficient patient with anti-IgA antibodies

A. Washed RBCs

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

D. Cryoprecipitate

154 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

154. Which condition is X- linked and is associated with abnormal RBC morphology, compensated hemolytic anemia, neurological and muscular abnormalities ?

A. Rh null

B. McLeod phenotype

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Graves Disease

155 / 205

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155. When do you administer Rhogan to Rh negative mom after giving birth to Rh positive baby ?

A. Within 72 hours

B. 7 days

C. 21 days

D. two weeks

156 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

156. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with INR>1.5

A. RBCs

B. Cryoprecipitate

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Washed RBCS

157 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

157. A 35-year-old pregnant woman has a routine ABO and Rh with the following results. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

158 / 205

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158. A man wants to donate blood. His physical examination reveals the following: weight—120 Ib, pulse—112 bpm, blood pressure—132/74 mm Hg, hematocrit—39%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

159 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

159. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A and anti-B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

160 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

160. The causative agent of Chagas disease is

A. Deer Fly

B. SandFly

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Trypanosoma Cruzi

161 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

161. Which of the following are antibodies to low-frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Kpb, Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

162 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

162. Leukoreduced RBCs must contain less than______? Leukocytes and retain at least_____?

A. 5x10^10 and 90%

B. 5x10^6 and 85%

C. 5x10^11 and 85%

D. 5x10^6 and 75%

163 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

163. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	0	+	+	0

A. dCe; d, C, E

B. dcE; d, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. DCE; D, C, E

164 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

164. Which antibody is neutralized by urine to allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-V

165 / 205

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165. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

166 / 205

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166. Which antigen is the most immunogenic of Rh antigens?

A. E

B. e

C. D

D. c

167 / 205

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167. What is the storage temperature and shelf life of Granulocyte pheresis?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 days

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires in 24 hours

168 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

168. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

169 / 205

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169. Which blood type is recommended by AABB Standards to be given to all weak-D recipients?

A. D-negative donor unit

B. D positive donor unit

C. Weak D donor unit

D. Partial D donor unit

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, P and I blood group are enhanced by enzymes

170 / 205

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170. Which antigen(s) is enhanced by enzymes?

A. Rh

B. Kidd

C. Lewis

D. All of the above

171 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

171. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	2+

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

172 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

172. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB positive

D. O, A, B, AB negative

173 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

173. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Immunodeficient recipient

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

174 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

174. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Patient with liver disease

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

175 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

175. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch? Immediate spin

A Positive	3+
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. None of the above

176 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

176. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A

Anti- B

Anti- D

Rh control

A1 cell

B cell

A. A positive

B. O positive

C. AB Positive

D. B positive

177 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

177. Individuals with hh genotype, anti-A, anti-B anti-A, B, and Anti-H are

A. Group O

B. Bombay phenotype

C. Group Jka

D. Chiedos Blood System

178 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

178. Large clumps with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. Negative

E. 3+

179 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

179. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	4+	0	0	0

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

180 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

180. Which autoantibody is associated with Echinococcus granulosis?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-P1

181 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

181. The two phases of humoral response are?

A. Innate and adaptive

B. Primary and Secondary

C. Primary and Tertiary

D. Immediate and Delayed

182 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

182. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	0	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

183 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

183. Which cells Agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin?

A. H antigen

B. A1 antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

184 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

184. What is a massive transfusion?

A. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells in 8 hours, in a response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

B. Replacement by transfusion of 8-10 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

C. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells within 24 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

D. Replacement by transfusion of 12 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

185 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

185. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	0	+	+

A. DCE; D, C, e

B. DcE; D, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. Dce; D, c, e

186 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

186. Iberus Amara has specificity for which antigen?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

187 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

187. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Fibrinogen deficiency?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma

C. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

D. Thawed Plasma

188 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

188. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type AB, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

189 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

189. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. AB negative

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

190 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

190. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BB

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

191 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

191. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (irradiated)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days on originally assigned outdate

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 days

D. A and B

192 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

192. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

193 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

193. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	+	0	0	+

A. DCe; D, C, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. Dce; D, C, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

194 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

194. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

Anti Jka is warm antibody; while others are cold reactive antibodies.

195 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

195. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti M

B. Anti-P

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-Jka

196 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

196. What antigens are present in a person with type A- blood?

A. A antigens

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

197 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

197. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group B and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group B and 50% Group O

198 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

198. What is being tested in reverse typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

199 / 205

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199. Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Dolichos biflorus lectin?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

While D antigen is the most immunogenic, c antigen is the next Rh antigen to elicit immune response followed by E, C, and e

200 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

200. Which Rh antigen is the most immunogenic?

A. c

B. E

C. C

D. e

201 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

201. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of thawed fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

202 / 205

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202. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor?

A. Temperature of 99.2 F

B. Hematocrit of 39%

C. Hemoglobin of 10.5g/dl

D. Blood pressure 180/90mm Hg

203 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

203. What blood type is the universal recipient?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

204 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

204. What preservative is used in ATP synthesis to maintain red blood cells stability?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

205 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

205. Which blood group system does Anti-Jk^a and Anti-Jk^b belong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

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