Blood Bank QBank -

Our question bank has 203 multiple choice questions on all the essential blood transfusion topics. If you are planning on taking ASCP, I will recommend using our question bank. Topics includes ABO genetics, ABO blood group, Rh blood system, Other blood groups, component storage, antibody identification, antibody screening, crossmatch, donor requirements, ABO blood typing and more.

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Bloodbank Finals

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Category: Bloodbank

1. Which blood group system do Anti-Fy^a and Anti-Fy^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth

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Category: Bloodbank

2. Which blood group antigen is well developed at birth?

A. P

B. Lu

C. Kidd

D. P1

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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3. Which autoantibody is associated with Echinococcus granulosis?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-P1

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4. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	2+

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

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5. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature?

A. 4 deg. Celsuis

B. 37 deg. Celsuis

C. 24 deg. Celsuis

D. 18 deg. Celsuis

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6. The Rh systems genes are?

A. RHAG and RHD

B. RHD and RHCE

C. RHCE and RHRAG

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7. Which antibody serologically mimics Anti-C and Anti D?

A. Anti-C

B. Anti-E

C. Anti-D

D. Anti- G

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8. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Fibrinogen deficiency?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma

C. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

D. Thawed Plasma

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9. Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by reducing the zeta potential between RBCs?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

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10. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	3+	0

A. AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

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Category: Bloodbank

11. When do you administer Rhogan to Rh negative mom after giving birth to Rh positive baby ?

A. Within 72 hours

B. 7 days

C. 21 days

D. two weeks

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Category: Bloodbank

12.

When does a pretransfusion specimen expire?

A. 7 days

B. 3 Days

C. 2 days

D. 2 Weeks

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Category: Bloodbank

13. What are the 2 stages of agglutination reaction?

A. Sensitization and Lattice formation

B. Attachment and bonding

C. Sensitization and agglutination

D. Sensitization and Prozoning

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Category: Bloodbank

14.

Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by lowering zeta potential and increasing the rate of antibody uptake?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

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Category: Bloodbank

15. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BB

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

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Category: Bloodbank

16. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CPD anticoagulants?

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. 24 days

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Category: Bloodbank

17. No clumps with a very cloudy background. Grade this reaction

A. 3+

B. Negative

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. 4+

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Category: Bloodbank

18. What is deferral period for aspirin?

A. 7 days

B. 5 days

C. 72 hours

D. 2 weeks

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Category: Bloodbank

19. Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concentrated near the top of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 2+

B. 1+

C. 4+

D. 3+

E. Negative

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

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20. A man wants to donate blood. His physical examination reveals the following: weight—120 Ib, pulse—112 bpm, blood pressure—132/74 mm Hg, hematocrit—39%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

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Category: Bloodbank

21. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -28°C, expires in 1 year

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Category: Bloodbank

22. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with INR>1.5

A. RBCs

B. Cryoprecipitate

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Washed RBCS

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Category: Bloodbank

23. Which of the following potentiator removes water from the test system and concentrates antibody?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

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Category: Bloodbank

24. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with neutropenia (<500 WBC/mm³)?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

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Category: Bloodbank

25. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with liver disease?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets

D. Granulocyte concentrates

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Category: Bloodbank

26. Agglutinated cells disperse into gel media and are observed throughout the length of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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Category: Bloodbank

27. The only blood group system in which an individual have antibodies to antigens they lack, without any prior exposure of red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy is

A. Rh system

B. Lewis blood system

C. Duffy System

D. ABO blood system

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Category: Bloodbank

28. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of thawed fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

Anti-P₁ is easily inhibited with P₁ substance(Hydatid cyst fluid)

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Category: Bloodbank

29. Which antibody is neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-P1

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30. How often can you donate platelets?

A. 24 times a year

B. 24 hours

C. 8 Weeks

D. 2 weeks

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Category: Bloodbank

31. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hematocrit of 20%.

A. RBCs

B. Washed RBCs

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. Platelets

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Category: Bloodbank

32. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. B negative

MMM

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Category: Bloodbank

33. Blood proteins produced by the immune system in response to a foreign substance in the body are called?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Immunogens

D. Immune cells

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Category: Bloodbank

34. Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets?

A. 3 x 10^10

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3 x 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

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Category: Bloodbank

35. How many drop(s) of a patient serum is added in reverse blood typing?

A. 4 drops

B. 1 drop

C. 5 drops

D. 2 drops

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Category: Bloodbank

36. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hemoglobin of 6g/dl?

A. Washed RBCS

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. RBCs

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

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37. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a female donor?

A. Temperature of 99.5 F

B. Hematocrit of 28%

C. Weighs 110Ibs

D. Blood pressure 130/70mm Hg

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Category: Bloodbank

38. Which blood group antigen is located near the RBC membrane and present when S or s is inherited?

A. S antigen

B. G antigen

C. U Antigen

D. M antigen

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Category: Bloodbank

39. Rh antibodies is associated with which clinical condition?

A. Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

B. Addison disease

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Hemophilia

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Category: Bloodbank

40. Many small clumps with a cloudy background. Grade the reaction

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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Category: Bloodbank

41. Large clumps with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. Negative

E. 3+

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Category: Bloodbank

42. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	0	+	+

A. DCE; D, C, e

B. DcE; D, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. Dce; D, c, e

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Category: Bloodbank

43. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. O negative

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Category: Bloodbank

44. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of whole blood?

A. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 32 days

B. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 35 days

C. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 45 days

D. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 21 days

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Category: Bloodbank

45. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch?

	Immediate spin
AB Negative	0
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. AB negative

B. A negative

C. B negative

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Category: Bloodbank

46. Which antigen has a receptor for Haemophilus influenza?

A. Yta

B. Cra

C. Kna

D. AnWj

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Category: Bloodbank

47. Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Donor Incarcerated for 10 days

C. Recipient of human growth hormone

D. Donor is HIV positive

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Category: Bloodbank

48. What is being tested in reverse typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

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Category: Bloodbank

49. The two phases of humoral response are?

A. Innate and adaptive

B. Primary and Secondary

C. Primary and Tertiary

D. Immediate and Delayed

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Category: Bloodbank

50. Individuals with hh genotype, anti-A, anti-B anti-A, B, and Anti-H are

A. Group O

B. Bombay phenotype

C. Group Jka

D. Chiedos Blood System

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Category: Bloodbank

51. Which autoantibody is associated with early abortion?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-PP1pk and anti-P

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Category: Bloodbank

52. What do Rh null cells lack?

A. A antigens

B. Lewis Antigens

C. Hemoglobin

D. Rh antigens

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Category: Bloodbank

53. What is the temperature range for maintaining red blood cells and whole blood during shipping?

A. 20-24°C

B. 1-10°C

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-18°C

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Category: Bloodbank

54. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

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Category: Bloodbank

55. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Immunodeficient recipient

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

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Category: Bloodbank

56. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hematocrit by

A. 5%

B. 1%

C. 6%

D. 3%

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Category: Bloodbank

57. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of frozen red blood cells?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 10 years

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 10 years

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Category: Bloodbank

58.

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Duffy

B. Kidd

C. Kell

D. MNS

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Category: Bloodbank

59. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of Cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 14 year s

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

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Category: Bloodbank

60. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with Adsol (AS-1, AS-3, orAS-5) anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

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Category: Bloodbank

61. Which blood group system does Anti-Js^a and Anti-Js ^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

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Category: Bloodbank

62. Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes?

A. CMV

B. HIV

C. HCV

D. HAV

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Category: Bloodbank

63. Antigen that shows dosage must be rule out with?

A. Cold panel

B. Heterozygous

C. Homozygous cell

D. Auto adsorption

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Category: Bloodbank

64. Which of the following are antibodies to high frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Lub, Anti-Kpb and Anti Jsb

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Category: Bloodbank

65. Which antigen is the most immunogenic of Rh antigens?

A. E

B. e

C. D

D. c

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Category: Bloodbank

66. Leukoreduced RBCs must contain less than______? Leukocytes and retain at least_____?

A. 5x10^10 and 90%

B. 5x10^6 and 85%

C. 5x10^11 and 85%

D. 5x10^6 and 75%

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Category: Bloodbank

67. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group AO and 50% Group BO

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% Group O

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

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Category: Bloodbank

68. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

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Category: Bloodbank

69. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

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Category: Bloodbank

70. Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Dolichos biflorus lectin?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

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Category: Bloodbank

71. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch? Immediate spin

A Positive	3+
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. None of the above

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Category: Bloodbank

72. Which blood group system is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Kell

D. Anti-Jkb

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Category: Bloodbank

73. Which gene controls the expression of C, c, E, e expression?

A. RHCD

B. RHD

C. RHCE

D. RHDC

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Category: Bloodbank

74. Kernicterus is caused by effect of?

A. Hypobilirubinemia

B. Hyperbilirubinemia

C. Anemia

D. Diabetes

Anti Jka is warm antibody; while others are cold reactive antibodies.

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Category: Bloodbank

75. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti M

B. Anti-P

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-Jka

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Category: Bloodbank

76. How long must a donor wait after plasma donation?

A. 7 days

B. 28 days

C. 8 Weeks

D. 24 hours

Anti P is cold reactive antibody; while others are warm reactive antibodies.

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Category: Bloodbank

77. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti Jka

B. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-S

D. Anti-P

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Category: Bloodbank

78. What are the two ways ABO typing can be performed?

A. Forward and front type

B. Reverse and back typing

C. Forward and Inverse typing

D. Forward and reverse typing

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Category: Bloodbank

79. Which of the following are antibodies to low-frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Kpb, Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

80 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

80. One unit of donor platelets derived from whole blood should yield how many platelets?

A. 5.5 X 10^11

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3.0 X 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

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Category: Bloodbank

81. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A and AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

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Category: Bloodbank

82. What antigens are present in a person with type AB- blood?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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Category: Bloodbank

83. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Decrease in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

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Category: Bloodbank

84. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 2 days

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

D. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 24 hours

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

85 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

85. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Increase in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

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Category: Bloodbank

86. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type AB make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A and B

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

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Category: Bloodbank

87. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Sickle cell anemia?

A. Washed RBCS

B. RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Cryoprecipitate

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Category: Bloodbank

88. Identify the antibody.

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

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Category: Bloodbank

89. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

90 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

90. Iberus Amara has specificity for which antigen?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

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Category: Bloodbank

91. What genes are necessary for the production of Le^bAntigens?

A. Se genes

B. Le and Se genes

C. H genes

D. H and Se genes

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Category: Bloodbank

92. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

A. DCe

B. DCE

C. dce

D. dCe

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Category: Bloodbank

93. Vicia graminea has specificity for which antigen?

A. N antigen

B. M antigen

C. A1 antigen

D. H antigen

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Category: Bloodbank

94. All cells pass through the gel media forming a cell button at the bottom of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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Category: Bloodbank

95. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is positive.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which donor unit should be selected?

	Immediate Spin	37^oC	Antiglobulin Phase
A positive	0	Not tested	Not tested
A negative	0	0	0; Check cell 2+
AB negative	0	0	0; Check cell 0
B negative	2+	2+	2+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

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Category: Bloodbank

96. What is the storage temperature and shelf life of Granulocyte pheresis?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 days

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires in 24 hours

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Category: Bloodbank

97. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB, 25% Group O, 25% Group A and 25% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group A and 50% Group O

98 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

98. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Patient with liver disease

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

99 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

99. A Clinical Laboratory Scientist(CLS) receives a specimen with the patient's name, medical record number, and date of collection printed on the label. What should the CLS do?

A. Accept the specimen for testing

B. Reject specimen and ask for redraw

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Category: Bloodbank

100. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

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Category: Bloodbank

101. Which antibody is neutralized by urine to allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-V

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Category: History

102. A term used to describe the Middle colonies because of their fertile soil, ideal for farming is known as?

A. Sufficient colonies

B. Bountiful colonies

C. flourbasket colonies

D. Breadbasket colonies

Duffy, MNS and Xga are destroyed by enzymes

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Category: Bloodbank

103. Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A. Duffy

B. Rh

C. Kidd

D. Lewis

104 / 205

Category: Physics

104. A term used to describe the study of motion is called?

A. Velocity

B. Mechanics

C. Kinematics

D. Acceleration

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Category: Bloodbank

105. A 35-year-old pregnant woman has a routine ABO and Rh with the following results. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

106 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

106. Which donor red blood cell unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. A negative

107 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

107. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A

Anti- B

Anti- D

Rh control

A1 cell

B cell

A. A positive

B. O positive

C. AB Positive

D. B positive

108 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

108. The antibody to this high prevalence antigen appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Sda

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-V

109 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

109. What units are given in massive transfusion?

A. 4 packed O negative red blood cells, 2 AB fresh frozen plasma and 1 O negative platelet apheresis

B. 4 packed red blood cells, 2 cryoprecipitate and 1 platelet apheresis

C. 2 packed red blood cells, 2 fresh frozen plasma and 1 platelet apheresis

110 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

110. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CP2D anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

111 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

111. The causative agent of Chagas disease is

A. Deer Fly

B. SandFly

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Trypanosoma Cruzi

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

112 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

112. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

D. Decrease in 2-3BPG levels

113 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

113. Which is not included on a properly labeled specimen?

A. Date of admission

B. Two unique patient identifiers

C. Date and time of collection

D. Phlebotomist's initials

114 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

114. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C		E		c		e
+		+		+		0		0

A. R2: DCe;

B. R1 : DcE

C. r’’: dce

D. r: dCE

115 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

115. How long must a donor wait after whole blood donation?

A. 16 Weeks

B. 24 Weeks

C. 56 days

D. 3 months

116 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

116. What is a massive transfusion?

A. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells in 8 hours, in a response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

B. Replacement by transfusion of 8-10 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

C. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells within 24 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

D. Replacement by transfusion of 12 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

117 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

117. Which transfusion reactions present with fever, maculopapular rash, pancytopenia?

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

118 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

118. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB positive

D. O, A, B, AB negative

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, P and I blood group are enhanced by enzymes

119 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

119. Which antigen(s) is enhanced by enzymes?

A. Rh

B. Kidd

C. Lewis

D. All of the above

Kidd, Duffy, MNS blood groups are known for showing dosage

120 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

120. Which of the following blood group antigens are known for showing dosage?

A. MNS

B. Duffy

C. Kidd

D. All of the above

121 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

121. Which blood group system do K and k antigens belong to?

A. Kell

B. Lutheran

C. Duffy

D. Kidd

122 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

122. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	+	0	0	+

A. DCe; D, C, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. Dce; D, C, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

123 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

123. What blood type can Bombay phenotype individual receive?

A. Type O Negative

B. Blood from only Bombay individuals

C. Type O positive

D. Group AB

124 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

124. ABO antibodies are

A. Naturally occurring and react at room temperature

B. Naturally occurring, activates complement, and reacts at 37oC

C. Acquired through blood transfusion and reacts at warmer temperature

125 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

125. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (irradiated)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days on originally assigned outdate

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 days

D. A and B

126 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

126. Agglutination cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

127 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

127. What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?

A. A antigen

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

128 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

128. Which donor RBC unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

129 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

129. Which of the following would be a cause permanent deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Recipient of human growth hormone

C. History of Chagas’ disease

D. All of the above

130 / 205

Category: Coagulation

130. A hereditary thrombocytes disorder that is caused by lack of functional GPIb-IX-V complexes on the platelet surface, and is associated with presence of large platelets, increased MPV, decreased aggregation response to ristocetin, and normal vWF: RCo, vWF: Ag?

A. Von Williebrand disease

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

D. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

131 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

131. What tests are performed before a blood transfusion is done?

A. ABO Typing and crossmatch

B. Antibody screen and crossmatch

C. Type and screen, DAT

D. ABO, Rh, Antibody Screen and Crossmatch

132 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

132. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

133 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

133. A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following: temperature—39⁰C, pulse—53 bpm, blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg, hematocrit—38%. Which of the following exclusions apply to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Temperature too high

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

134 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

134. Which cells Agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin?

A. H antigen

B. A1 antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

135 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

135. Which antigen is expressed when c and e are present on the same haplotype?

A. G antigen

B. f antigen

C. D antigen

D. E antigen

136 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

136. Which condition is X- linked and is associated with abnormal RBC morphology, compensated hemolytic anemia, neurological and muscular abnormalities ?

A. Rh null

B. McLeod phenotype

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Graves Disease

137 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

137. What is the purpose of a crossmatch?

A. To detect the presence of antibodies in donor cells

B. To detect the presence of antigens in recipient's red blood cells against antibodies in donor units

C. To detect the presence of antibodies in recipient's serum against antigens in donor RBCs.

D. To prevent severe hemolytic anemia and death

138 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

138. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. AB negative

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

139 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

139. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	0	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

140 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

140. What is biphasic hemolysin?

A. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement at 4°C

B. Binds to RBCs at low temperatures and activate complement at 37°C

C. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement

D. Activate complement at 37°C

141 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

141. Which antibody can be neutralized with human breast milk?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Lewis

142 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

142. An anticoagulant that chelates calcium to prevent clotting is called?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

143 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

143. What antigens are present in a person with blood type O?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

144 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

144. Which of the following RBC abnormality is associated with Rh null syndrome?

A. Spherocytosis

B. Granulocytosis

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Elliptocytosis

145 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

145. Which blood group system does Anti-Jk^a and Anti-Jk^b belong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

146 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

146. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A and anti-B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

147 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

147. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A,B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

148 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

148. What blood type is the universal recipient?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

149 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

149. Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Anti Fya-b-

D. Anti-Jkb

150 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

150. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type A make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. Anti C

D. Anti-A,B

151 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

151. Which antibody can be neutralized with pooled plasma to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-Ch (Chido)

152 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

152. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

153 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

153. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 8 hours after pooling

154 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

154. In an emergency, what blood type should be given to Rh-negative females of childbearing age?

A. O Postive

B. O negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

155 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

155. What blood type is the universal donor?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

156 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

156. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a platelet count of <10.000u/L?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Platelets

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

157 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

157. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

158 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

158. What is being tested in forward typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

159 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

159. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (deglycerolized)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 hours after thawing

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 8 hours after thawing

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

D. Storage 1-10°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

160 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

160. Which gene controls the expression of D expression?

A. RHCE

B. RHCD

C. RHCD

D. RHD

161 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

161. Individuals with blood group O have

A. B antigens on their RBC's

B. A antigens on their RBC's

C. Anti-A antibody

D. Anti-A, B antibody

162 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

162. What preservative is used in ATP synthesis to maintain red blood cells stability?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

163 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

163. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type O make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCs

Antibodies present in the serum

None

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

164 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

164. What antigens are present in a person with type A- blood?

A. A antigens

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

165 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

165. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Hemophilia A disorder.

A. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Thawed Plasma

166 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

166. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion.

IgA deficient patient with anti-IgA antibodies

A. Washed RBCs

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

D. Cryoprecipitate

167 / 205

Category: Uncategorized

167. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hemoglobin approximately by

A. 4 g/dL

B. 1 g/dL

C. 6 g/dL

D. 3 g/dL

168 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

168. How many platelets should platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis contain?

A. 5x10^11

B. 3x10^10

C. 3x10^11

D. 5x10^10

169 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

169. Which Rh phenotype is written as D- - or -D- ?

A. Weak D

B. Rh null

C. D deletion

D. Partial D

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

170 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

170. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

171 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

171. What is the shelf life of blood component with CPDA-1 anticoagulant?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

172 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

172. Which antigens are strongly expressed on placental tissues?

A. Yta

B. Chido

C. Cromer

D. AnWj

173 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

173. Rh antigens are proteins, unlike ABO antigens which are glycolipids.

A. False

B. True

174 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

174. The extract from seeds of Ulex Europeaus has specificity for?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. N antigen

D. M antigen

175 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

175. Unlike ABO antibodies, anti- D antibody is produced through exposure to D antigen through transfusion or pregnancy and can cause significant hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn (HDFN) or hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A. True

B. False

176 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

176. Which immunohematology test is performed to determine in vitro sensitization of RBC’s?

A. Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

B. Direct Antiglobulin Test

C. Weak D

D. Elution

177 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

177. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

178 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

178. Which blood group system is associated with McLeod phenotype?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

179 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

179. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin B?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

180 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

180. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen.

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	0

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

181 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

181. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

182 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

182. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

183 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

183. What is the temperature range for maintaining platelets during shipping?

A. 1-18°C

B. Room temperature

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-14°C

184 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

184. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group B and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group B and 50% Group O

185 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

185. Medium clumps with a slightly cloudy background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 3+

C. 2+

D. 1+

E. Negative

186 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

186.

A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	+	+	0

A. Dce; D, c, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. DcE; D, c, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

187 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

187. Solid button with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 4+

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. Negative

188 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

188. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	0	+	+	0

A. dCe; d, C, E

B. dcE; d, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. DCE; D, C, E

189 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

189. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type AB, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth while P and Lutheran blood group system are poorly developed at birth

190 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

190. Which blood group antigen is poorly developed at birth?

A. P

B. MN

C. Kidd

D. Duffy

191 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

191. Which antibody is neutralized in vitro by Lewis substance?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Lewis

192 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

192. What are the four main blood groups in the ABO blood group system?

A. Group A, B, C, AB

B. Group A, B, O, AB

C. Group A, B, D, AB

D. Group A, O,B, AD

193 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

193. Which blood type is recommended by AABB Standards to be given to all weak-D recipients?

A. D-negative donor unit

B. D positive donor unit

C. Weak D donor unit

D. Partial D donor unit

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

194 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

194. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor?

A. Temperature of 99.2 F

B. Hematocrit of 39%

C. Hemoglobin of 10.5g/dl

D. Blood pressure 180/90mm Hg

195 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

195. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 6 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

196 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

196. Which D phenotype is suspected when a seemingly D-positive person makes anti-D after transfusion with D-positive blood?

A. Partial D

B. Weak D

C. Rh null

D. D deletion

197 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

197. What type of molecules are Rh antigens?

A. Glycophorins

B. Sugars

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

198 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

198. Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and concentrate towards the bottom of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. 4+

E. Negative

199 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

199. Which of the following antibody is an IgG biphasic antibody in Donath-Landsteiner antibody test?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-P1

D. Lewis

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

200 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

200. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin A?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

201 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

201. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	4+	0	0	0

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

202 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

202. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	4+	0	3+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

While D antigen is the most immunogenic, c antigen is the next Rh antigen to elicit immune response followed by E, C, and e

203 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

203. Which Rh antigen is the most immunogenic?

A. c

B. E

C. C

D. e

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

204 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

204. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

205 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

205. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	3+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

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