Assessment Quiz Review Micro course before taking the assessment. Click here 12345678910111213141516171819202122232425262728293031323334353637383940 0% 1 votes, 4 avg 7 GOOD LUCK WELL DONE SCAT Assessment The number of attempts remaining is 2 1 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 1. A 28-year-old woman is seen for extreme fatigue. Lately, she has developed a taste for eating ice. Her physical examination shows pale conjunctiva. Her Complete blood count (CBC) result is shown below. Summary labs: Hemoglobin 7.2g/dL Hematocrit 34% RBC 4.5 /mm3 Platelets 250,000/mm3 Red cell Distribution Width (RDW) 17.1% What is the likely diagnosis? Calculate the MCV, MCH, and MCHC Serum Iron Serum ferritin Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) Patient Iron studies Low Low Increased A. 85.6fl, 26pg, 24.2g/dL, Sideroblastic anemia B. 65.6fl, 16pg, 23.2g/dL, Iron deficiency anemia C. 75.6fl, 16pg, 21.2g/dL, Iron deficiency anemia D. 76fl, 16pg, 21.2g/dL, Anemia of chronic Inflammation 2 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 2. Which test would differentiate between Iron deficiency anemias and anemia of chronic inflammation? A. Serum Ferritin B. Serum Iron C. Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) D. Serum ferritin and Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) 3 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 3. A 35-year-old female was admitted in the ER for complaints of weakness. Her CBC result shows hemoglobin of 6g/dL hemoglobin and hematocrit of 32%.She has a historical blood type on file. Here are the results of the type and screen Anti A Anti B ANTI-D A1 cells B cells 0 0 0 4+ 4+ Screening Cell 1 Screening Cell 2 Screening Cell 3 0 0 0 What is the ABO, Rh, and Antibody Screen result of the patient? What type of crossmatch should be performed? What would be the expected hemoglobin level after transfusion of 2 PRBC A. AB negative, Antibody Negative, Immediate spin crossmatch, expected hemoglobin 10g/dL B. AB negative, Antibody Negative, Immediate spin crossmatch, expected hemoglobin 8g/dL C. O negative, Antibody Negative, Immediate spin crossmatch, expected hemoglobin 8g/dL D. O negative, Antibody Negative, Immediate spin crossmatch, expected hemoglobin 9g/dL 4 / 40 Category: Coagulation 4. Which test is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy? A. Thrombin time B. aPTT C. Prothrombin time D. D-dimer 5 / 40 Category: Coagulation 5. Which test is used to monitor oral anticoagulation (Coumadin)? A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) C. Thrombin time (TT) D. Bleeding Time 6 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 6. Which term is defined as a urine volume more than 2000 mL excreted over a 24-hour period? A. Anuria B. Polyuria C. Oliguria D. Nocturia 7 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 7. Which of the following inorganic substances have the highest concentration in a urine? A. Sodium B. Magnesium C. Chloride D. potassium 8 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 8. Which of the following organic substance accounts for 50% of all dissolved solids in a urine? A. Uric Acid B. Creatine C. All of the above D. Urea 9 / 40 Category: Coagulation 9. Specimens for coagulation should be collected in light blue top tubes containing? A. 3.2% Sodium heparin B. 2.5 % Sodium citrate C. 3.1 % Sodium fluoride D. 3.2 % Sodium Citrate 10 / 40 Category: Coagulation 10. The anticoagulant required for routine coagulation testing is A. Sodium heparin B. Sodium citrate C. EDTA D. Sodium fluoride 11 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 11. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen? Anti-A Anti- B Anti- D Rh A1 cell B cell 0 0 4+ 0 4+ 3+ Screening cell 1 Screening cell 2 Screening cell 3 0 0 2+ A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive 12 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 12. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test? Anti-A Anti- B Anti- D Rh A1 cell B cell 4+ 0 0 0 0 4+ Screening cell 1 Screening cell 2 Screening cell 3 0 0 0 A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative 13 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 13. What tests are performed before a blood transfusion is done? A. ABO Typing and crossmatch B. Antibody screen and crossmatch C. Type and screen, DAT D. ABO, Rh, Antibody Screen and Crossmatch 14 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 14. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen Screening cell 1 Screening cell 2 Screening cell 3 0 0 2+ A. Immediate Spin B. Extended Crossmatch 15 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 15. Which donor RBC unit should be selected? Anti-A Anti- B Anti- D Rh control A1 cell B cell 4+ 4+ 0 0 0 0 A. O positive B. AB positive C. AB negative D. O negative 16 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 16. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type? Anti-A Anti- B Anti- D Rh A1 cell B cell 4+ 0 4+ 0 0 3+ A. A positive B. A negative C. AB negative D. O negative Agglutination reaction with Anti-A indicates the presence of A antigen, there is agglutination with Anti D indicating presence of D antigen. Also agglutination with B cells validates the forward reactions. 17 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 17. What is being tested in reverse typing? A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present Reverse type: Serum is mixed with reagent A1 and B RBCs to detect ABO antibodies in the serum 18 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 18. What are the two ways ABO typing can be performed? A. Forward and front type B. Reverse and back typing C. Forward and Inverse typing D. Forward and reverse typing 19 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 19. What antigens are present in a person with type AB- blood? A. A antigen B. None C. B antigens D. A and B antigens 20 / 40 Category: Bloodbank 20. The only blood group system in which an individual have antibodies to antigens they lack, without any prior exposure of red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy is A. Rh system B. Lewis blood system C. Duffy System D. ABO blood system 21 / 40 Category: Clinical Chemistry 21. Which of the following tumor marker is used for detecting recurrence of breast cancer? A. CA 19-9 B. CA 15-3 C. CA 17-9 D. CA 125 22 / 40 Category: Clinical Chemistry 22. Which of the following is an oncofetal antigen that is elevated in colorectal carcinoma? A. a1-fetoprotein B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) C. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 23 / 40 Category: Clinical Chemistry 23. Which of the following oncofetal antigen is associated with Down syndrome? A. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) B. a1-fetoprotein C. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 24 / 40 Category: Clinical Chemistry 24. Which of the following is a tissue-specific marker used to detect prostate cancer? A. 1-fetoprotein B. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) C. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 25 / 40 Category: Clinical Chemistry 25. Decreased alpha-1-fetoprotein level in maternal serum is expected in which of the following disorder? A. Down syndrome B. Trisomy 18 C. Inflammatory disorders D. A and B 26 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 26. "Isosthenuria" is a term applied to a urine specimen that exhibits ? A. Specific gravity of 1.001 B. Fixed specific gravity of 1.010 C. Specific gravity less than 1.020 D. Specific gravity greater than 1.005 27 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 27. Which of the following is the major organic substance found in urine ? A. Sodium B. Creatinine C. Urea D. Potassium 28 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 28. The confirmatory test for ketone is ? A. Acetest B. Clinitest C. Icotest D. Benedict tests 29 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 29. The confirmatory test for bilirubin is ? A. Acetest B. Clinitest C. Icotest D. Benedict tests 30 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 30. Presence of ketone in the urine is indicative of ? A. Rapid weight loss B. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus C. Starvation D. All of the above 31 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 31. What is the confirmatory test for galactose ? A. Acetest B. Clinitest C. Icotest D. Benedict tests 32 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 32. A term used to describe urine with a specific gravity of greater than 1.010 ? A. Isosthenuric urine B. Hyposthenuric urine C. Hypersthenuric urine D. Osmosthenuric urine 33 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 33. A term used to describe urine with a specific gravity of less than 1.010? A. Isosthenuric urine B. Hyposthenuric urine C. Hypersthenuric urine D. Osmosthenuric urine 34 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 34. The specific gravity of a normal urine is ? A. 1.001-1.035 B. 1.001-1.0025 C. 1.003-1.035 D. 1.006-1.075 35 / 40 Category: Hematology 35. What is this cell? A. Dacrocytes B. Reticulocyte C. Codocytes D. Elliptocytes 36 / 40 Category: Hematology 36. What is this cell? A. Dacrocytes B. Reticulocyte C. Sickle Cells D. Elliptocytes 37 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 37. Identify this bacteria? A. Gram negative B. Gram positive 38 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 38. Which group of bacteria will stain red in gram stain? A. Gram negative B. Gram positive 39 / 40 Category: SCAT Assessment 39. What stain is used to differentiate between gram-negative bacteria from gram-positive bacteria? A. Gram Iodine B. Gram stain C. Methylene blue stain D. Wright stain 40 / 40 Category: Urinalysis 40. A positive nitrite is indicative of ? A. Cystitis B. Pyelonephritis C. Urinary tract infection D. All of the above Your score is LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz 8 Send feedback Share this:TwitterFacebookLike this:Like Loading...