Blood Bank QBank -

Our question bank has 203 multiple choice questions on all the essential blood transfusion topics. If you are planning on taking ASCP, I will recommend using our question bank. Topics includes ABO genetics, ABO blood group, Rh blood system, Other blood groups, component storage, antibody identification, antibody screening, crossmatch, donor requirements, ABO blood typing and more.

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Bloodbank Finals

1 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

1. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. AB negative

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

2 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

2. Which of the following are antibodies to low-frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Kpb, Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

3 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

3. Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Dolichos biflorus lectin?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

4 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

4. What blood type is the universal recipient?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

5 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

5. What are the four main blood groups in the ABO blood group system?

A. Group A, B, C, AB

B. Group A, B, O, AB

C. Group A, B, D, AB

D. Group A, O,B, AD

6 / 205

Category: History

6. A term used to describe the Middle colonies because of their fertile soil, ideal for farming is known as?

A. Sufficient colonies

B. Bountiful colonies

C. flourbasket colonies

D. Breadbasket colonies

7 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

7. Rh antigens are proteins, unlike ABO antigens which are glycolipids.

A. False

B. True

8 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

8. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 8 hours after pooling

9 / 205

Category: Physics

9. A term used to describe the study of motion is called?

A. Velocity

B. Mechanics

C. Kinematics

D. Acceleration

10 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

10. ABO antibodies are

A. Naturally occurring and react at room temperature

B. Naturally occurring, activates complement, and reacts at 37oC

C. Acquired through blood transfusion and reacts at warmer temperature

11 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

11. Agglutinated cells disperse into gel media and are observed throughout the length of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

12 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

12. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with Adsol (AS-1, AS-3, orAS-5) anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

13 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

13. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	3+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

14 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

14. How often can you donate platelets?

A. 24 times a year

B. 24 hours

C. 8 Weeks

D. 2 weeks

15 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

15. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. B negative

16 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

16. How long must a donor wait after plasma donation?

A. 7 days

B. 28 days

C. 8 Weeks

D. 24 hours

17 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

17. Which blood group system does Anti-Jk^a and Anti-Jk^b belong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

Anti P is cold reactive antibody; while others are warm reactive antibodies.

18 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

18. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti Jka

B. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-S

D. Anti-P

19 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

19. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of frozen red blood cells?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 10 years

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 10 years

20 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

20. Individuals with blood group O have

A. B antigens on their RBC's

B. A antigens on their RBC's

C. Anti-A antibody

D. Anti-A, B antibody

21 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

21. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group B and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group B and 50% Group O

22 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

22. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 6 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

23 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

23. Which gene controls the expression of C, c, E, e expression?

A. RHCD

B. RHD

C. RHCE

D. RHDC

24 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

24. What do Rh null cells lack?

A. A antigens

B. Lewis Antigens

C. Hemoglobin

D. Rh antigens

25 / 205

Category: Coagulation

25. A hereditary thrombocytes disorder that is caused by lack of functional GPIb-IX-V complexes on the platelet surface, and is associated with presence of large platelets, increased MPV, decreased aggregation response to ristocetin, and normal vWF: RCo, vWF: Ag?

A. Von Williebrand disease

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

D. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

26 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

26. Solid button with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 4+

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. Negative

27 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

27. Which blood group system do Anti-Fy^a and Anti-Fy^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

28 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

28. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor?

A. Temperature of 99.2 F

B. Hematocrit of 39%

C. Hemoglobin of 10.5g/dl

D. Blood pressure 180/90mm Hg

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth

29 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

29. Which blood group antigen is well developed at birth?

A. P

B. Lu

C. Kidd

D. P1

30 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

30. No clumps with a very cloudy background. Grade this reaction

A. 3+

B. Negative

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. 4+

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

31 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

31. Which autoantibody is associated with Echinococcus granulosis?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-P1

32 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

32. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Hemophilia A disorder.

A. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Thawed Plasma

33 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

33. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	0	+	+

A. DCE; D, C, e

B. DcE; D, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. Dce; D, c, e

34 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

34. Which blood group system do K and k antigens belong to?

A. Kell

B. Lutheran

C. Duffy

D. Kidd

35 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

35. Which D phenotype is suspected when a seemingly D-positive person makes anti-D after transfusion with D-positive blood?

A. Partial D

B. Weak D

C. Rh null

D. D deletion

36 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

36. What is the temperature range for maintaining platelets during shipping?

A. 1-18°C

B. Room temperature

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-14°C

37 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

37. What antigens are present in a person with type A- blood?

A. A antigens

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

38 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

38. Which blood group system does Anti-Js^a and Anti-Js ^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

39 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

39. Which antigen has a receptor for Haemophilus influenza?

A. Yta

B. Cra

C. Kna

D. AnWj

40 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

40. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch?

	Immediate spin
AB Negative	0
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. AB negative

B. A negative

C. B negative

While D antigen is the most immunogenic, c antigen is the next Rh antigen to elicit immune response followed by E, C, and e

41 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

41. Which Rh antigen is the most immunogenic?

A. c

B. E

C. C

D. e

42 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

42. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Immunodeficient recipient

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

43 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

43. Which antibody can be neutralized with pooled plasma to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-Ch (Chido)

44 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

44. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hemoglobin of 6g/dl?

A. Washed RBCS

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. RBCs

45 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

45. Agglutination cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

46 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

46. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A

Anti- B

Anti- D

Rh control

A1 cell

B cell

A. A positive

B. O positive

C. AB Positive

D. B positive

47 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

47. Which antigen is expressed when c and e are present on the same haplotype?

A. G antigen

B. f antigen

C. D antigen

D. E antigen

48 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

48. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A and anti-B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

49 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

49. What are the 2 stages of agglutination reaction?

A. Sensitization and Lattice formation

B. Attachment and bonding

C. Sensitization and agglutination

D. Sensitization and Prozoning

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

50 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

50. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Increase in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

51 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

51. Which antibody is neutralized in vitro by Lewis substance?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Lewis

52 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

52. Which autoantibody is associated with early abortion?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-PP1pk and anti-P

53 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

53. An anticoagulant that chelates calcium to prevent clotting is called?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

54 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

54. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	4+	0	0	0

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

55 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

55. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with liver disease?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets

D. Granulocyte concentrates

56 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

56. Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets?

A. 3 x 10^10

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3 x 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

57 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

57. Identify the antibody.

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

58 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

58. Leukoreduced RBCs must contain less than______? Leukocytes and retain at least_____?

A. 5x10^10 and 90%

B. 5x10^6 and 85%

C. 5x10^11 and 85%

D. 5x10^6 and 75%

59 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

59. What blood type is the universal donor?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

60 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

60. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CP2D anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

61 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

61. Unlike ABO antibodies, anti- D antibody is produced through exposure to D antigen through transfusion or pregnancy and can cause significant hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn (HDFN) or hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A. True

B. False

62 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

62. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen.

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	0

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

63 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

63. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

64 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

64. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of whole blood?

A. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 32 days

B. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 35 days

C. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 45 days

D. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 21 days

Anti-P₁ is easily inhibited with P₁ substance(Hydatid cyst fluid)

65 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

65. Which antibody is neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-P1

66 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

66. What tests are performed before a blood transfusion is done?

A. ABO Typing and crossmatch

B. Antibody screen and crossmatch

C. Type and screen, DAT

D. ABO, Rh, Antibody Screen and Crossmatch

67 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

67. What preservative is used in ATP synthesis to maintain red blood cells stability?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

68 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

68. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (deglycerolized)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 hours after thawing

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 8 hours after thawing

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

D. Storage 1-10°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

69 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

69. Which condition is X- linked and is associated with abnormal RBC morphology, compensated hemolytic anemia, neurological and muscular abnormalities ?

A. Rh null

B. McLeod phenotype

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Graves Disease

70 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

70. The causative agent of Chagas disease is

A. Deer Fly

B. SandFly

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Trypanosoma Cruzi

71 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

71. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

72 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

72. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hematocrit by

A. 5%

B. 1%

C. 6%

D. 3%

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

73 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

73. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Decrease in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

74 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

74. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	0	+	+	0

A. dCe; d, C, E

B. dcE; d, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. DCE; D, C, E

75 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

75. What is deferral period for aspirin?

A. 7 days

B. 5 days

C. 72 hours

D. 2 weeks

76 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

76. When do you administer Rhogan to Rh negative mom after giving birth to Rh positive baby ?

A. Within 72 hours

B. 7 days

C. 21 days

D. two weeks

77 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

77. Which of the following antibody is an IgG biphasic antibody in Donath-Landsteiner antibody test?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-P1

D. Lewis

78 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

78. What type of molecules are Rh antigens?

A. Glycophorins

B. Sugars

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

79 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

79. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

A. DCe

B. DCE

C. dce

D. dCe

Kidd, Duffy, MNS blood groups are known for showing dosage

80 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

80. Which of the following blood group antigens are known for showing dosage?

A. MNS

B. Duffy

C. Kidd

D. All of the above

81 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

81. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	0	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

82 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

82. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

83 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

83. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Fibrinogen deficiency?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma

C. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

D. Thawed Plasma

84 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

84. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of thawed fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

85 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

85. Which of the following are antibodies to high frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Lub, Anti-Kpb and Anti Jsb

86 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

86. All cells pass through the gel media forming a cell button at the bottom of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

87 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

87. A man wants to donate blood. His physical examination reveals the following: weight—120 Ib, pulse—112 bpm, blood pressure—132/74 mm Hg, hematocrit—39%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

88 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

88. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type AB make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A and B

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

89 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

89. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin A?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

90 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

90. What is a massive transfusion?

A. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells in 8 hours, in a response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

B. Replacement by transfusion of 8-10 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

C. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells within 24 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

D. Replacement by transfusion of 12 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

91 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

91. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin B?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

92 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

92. A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following: temperature—39⁰C, pulse—53 bpm, blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg, hematocrit—38%. Which of the following exclusions apply to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Temperature too high

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

93 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

93. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hematocrit of 20%.

A. RBCs

B. Washed RBCs

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. Platelets

94 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

94. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. O negative

95 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

95. The antibody to this high prevalence antigen appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Sda

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-V

96 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

96. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch? Immediate spin

A Positive	3+
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. None of the above

97 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

97. Large clumps with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. Negative

E. 3+

98 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

98. What is the shelf life of blood component with CPDA-1 anticoagulant?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

99 / 205

Category: Uncategorized

99. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hemoglobin approximately by

A. 4 g/dL

B. 1 g/dL

C. 6 g/dL

D. 3 g/dL

100 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

100. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

101 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

101. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Sickle cell anemia?

A. Washed RBCS

B. RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Cryoprecipitate

102 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

102. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	3+	0

A. AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

103 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

103. Medium clumps with a slightly cloudy background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 3+

C. 2+

D. 1+

E. Negative

104 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

104. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group AO and 50% Group BO

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% Group O

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

105 / 205

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105. What is being tested in reverse typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

106 / 205

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106. Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by reducing the zeta potential between RBCs?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

107 / 205

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107. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

108 / 205

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108. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

109 / 205

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109. Which antibody is neutralized by urine to allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-V

110 / 205

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110. What genes are necessary for the production of Le^bAntigens?

A. Se genes

B. Le and Se genes

C. H genes

D. H and Se genes

111 / 205

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111. Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concentrated near the top of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 2+

B. 1+

C. 4+

D. 3+

E. Negative

112 / 205

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112. Which is not included on a properly labeled specimen?

A. Date of admission

B. Two unique patient identifiers

C. Date and time of collection

D. Phlebotomist's initials

113 / 205

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113. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (irradiated)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days on originally assigned outdate

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 days

D. A and B

114 / 205

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114. What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?

A. A antigen

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

115 / 205

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115. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	2+

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

116 / 205

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116. Which transfusion reactions present with fever, maculopapular rash, pancytopenia?

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

117 / 205

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117. How many drop(s) of a patient serum is added in reverse blood typing?

A. 4 drops

B. 1 drop

C. 5 drops

D. 2 drops

MMM

118 / 205

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118. Blood proteins produced by the immune system in response to a foreign substance in the body are called?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Immunogens

D. Immune cells

119 / 205

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119. In an emergency, what blood type should be given to Rh-negative females of childbearing age?

A. O Postive

B. O negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

120 / 205

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120. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

121 / 205

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121. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with INR>1.5

A. RBCs

B. Cryoprecipitate

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Washed RBCS

122 / 205

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122. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BB

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

123 / 205

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123. What is the temperature range for maintaining red blood cells and whole blood during shipping?

A. 20-24°C

B. 1-10°C

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-18°C

124 / 205

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124. Which Rh phenotype is written as D- - or -D- ?

A. Weak D

B. Rh null

C. D deletion

D. Partial D

125 / 205

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125. What antigens are present in a person with type AB- blood?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

126 / 205

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126. The Rh systems genes are?

A. RHAG and RHD

B. RHD and RHCE

C. RHCE and RHRAG

127 / 205

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127.

When does a pretransfusion specimen expire?

A. 7 days

B. 3 Days

C. 2 days

D. 2 Weeks

128 / 205

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128. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with neutropenia (<500 WBC/mm³)?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

129 / 205

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129. A Clinical Laboratory Scientist(CLS) receives a specimen with the patient's name, medical record number, and date of collection printed on the label. What should the CLS do?

A. Accept the specimen for testing

B. Reject specimen and ask for redraw

130 / 205

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130.

Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by lowering zeta potential and increasing the rate of antibody uptake?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

131 / 205

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131. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type A make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. Anti C

D. Anti-A,B

132 / 205

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132. The two phases of humoral response are?

A. Innate and adaptive

B. Primary and Secondary

C. Primary and Tertiary

D. Immediate and Delayed

133 / 205

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133. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

134 / 205

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134. What is biphasic hemolysin?

A. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement at 4°C

B. Binds to RBCs at low temperatures and activate complement at 37°C

C. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement

D. Activate complement at 37°C

135 / 205

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135. What is being tested in forward typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

Anti Jka is warm antibody; while others are cold reactive antibodies.

136 / 205

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136. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti M

B. Anti-P

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-Jka

137 / 205

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137. What is the purpose of a crossmatch?

A. To detect the presence of antibodies in donor cells

B. To detect the presence of antigens in recipient's red blood cells against antibodies in donor units

C. To detect the presence of antibodies in recipient's serum against antigens in donor RBCs.

D. To prevent severe hemolytic anemia and death

138 / 205

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138. How many platelets should platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis contain?

A. 5x10^11

B. 3x10^10

C. 3x10^11

D. 5x10^10

139 / 205

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139. Individuals with hh genotype, anti-A, anti-B anti-A, B, and Anti-H are

A. Group O

B. Bombay phenotype

C. Group Jka

D. Chiedos Blood System

Duffy, MNS and Xga are destroyed by enzymes

140 / 205

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140. Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A. Duffy

B. Rh

C. Kidd

D. Lewis

141 / 205

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141. Rh antibodies is associated with which clinical condition?

A. Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

B. Addison disease

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Hemophilia

142 / 205

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142. What is the storage temperature and shelf life of Granulocyte pheresis?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 days

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires in 24 hours

143 / 205

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143. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of Cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 14 year s

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

144 / 205

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144. Which blood type is recommended by AABB Standards to be given to all weak-D recipients?

A. D-negative donor unit

B. D positive donor unit

C. Weak D donor unit

D. Partial D donor unit

145 / 205

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145. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	+	0	0	+

A. DCe; D, C, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. Dce; D, C, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

146 / 205

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146. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CPD anticoagulants?

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. 24 days

147 / 205

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147. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

148 / 205

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148. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 2 days

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

D. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 24 hours

149 / 205

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149. Which donor RBC unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

150 / 205

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150. Vicia graminea has specificity for which antigen?

A. N antigen

B. M antigen

C. A1 antigen

D. H antigen

151 / 205

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151. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -28°C, expires in 1 year

152 / 205

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152. What are the two ways ABO typing can be performed?

A. Forward and front type

B. Reverse and back typing

C. Forward and Inverse typing

D. Forward and reverse typing

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

153 / 205

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153. One unit of donor platelets derived from whole blood should yield how many platelets?

A. 5.5 X 10^11

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3.0 X 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

154 / 205

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154. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a female donor?

A. Temperature of 99.5 F

B. Hematocrit of 28%

C. Weighs 110Ibs

D. Blood pressure 130/70mm Hg

155 / 205

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155. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB, 25% Group O, 25% Group A and 25% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group A and 50% Group O

156 / 205

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156. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB positive

D. O, A, B, AB negative

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth while P and Lutheran blood group system are poorly developed at birth

157 / 205

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157. Which blood group antigen is poorly developed at birth?

A. P

B. MN

C. Kidd

D. Duffy

158 / 205

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158. The extract from seeds of Ulex Europeaus has specificity for?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. N antigen

D. M antigen

159 / 205

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159. Which antigen is the most immunogenic of Rh antigens?

A. E

B. e

C. D

D. c

160 / 205

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160. Many small clumps with a cloudy background. Grade the reaction

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

161 / 205

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161. Antigen that shows dosage must be rule out with?

A. Cold panel

B. Heterozygous

C. Homozygous cell

D. Auto adsorption

162 / 205

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162. Which antibody serologically mimics Anti-C and Anti D?

A. Anti-C

B. Anti-E

C. Anti-D

D. Anti- G

163 / 205

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163. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

164 / 205

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164. Which donor red blood cell unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. A negative

165 / 205

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165.

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Duffy

B. Kidd

C. Kell

D. MNS

166 / 205

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166. Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes?

A. CMV

B. HIV

C. HCV

D. HAV

167 / 205

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167.

A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	+	+	0

A. Dce; D, c, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. DcE; D, c, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

168 / 205

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168. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature?

A. 4 deg. Celsuis

B. 37 deg. Celsuis

C. 24 deg. Celsuis

D. 18 deg. Celsuis

169 / 205

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169. Which blood group system is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Kell

D. Anti-Jkb

170 / 205

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170. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A and AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

171 / 205

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171. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C		E		c		e
+		+		+		0		0

A. R2: DCe;

B. R1 : DcE

C. r’’: dce

D. r: dCE

172 / 205

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172. Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and concentrate towards the bottom of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. 4+

E. Negative

173 / 205

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173. A 35-year-old pregnant woman has a routine ABO and Rh with the following results. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

174 / 205

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174. Which antigens are strongly expressed on placental tissues?

A. Yta

B. Chido

C. Cromer

D. AnWj

175 / 205

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175. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is positive.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which donor unit should be selected?

	Immediate Spin	37^oC	Antiglobulin Phase
A positive	0	Not tested	Not tested
A negative	0	0	0; Check cell 2+
AB negative	0	0	0; Check cell 0
B negative	2+	2+	2+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

176 / 205

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176. Which blood group system is associated with McLeod phenotype?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

177 / 205

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177. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A,B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

178 / 205

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178. Iberus Amara has specificity for which antigen?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

179 / 205

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179. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type AB, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

180 / 205

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180. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a platelet count of <10.000u/L?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Platelets

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

181 / 205

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181. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

182 / 205

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182. Which gene controls the expression of D expression?

A. RHCE

B. RHCD

C. RHCD

D. RHD

183 / 205

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183. Kernicterus is caused by effect of?

A. Hypobilirubinemia

B. Hyperbilirubinemia

C. Anemia

D. Diabetes

184 / 205

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184. What antigens are present in a person with blood type O?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

185 / 205

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185. Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Donor Incarcerated for 10 days

C. Recipient of human growth hormone

D. Donor is HIV positive

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

186 / 205

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186. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

D. Decrease in 2-3BPG levels

187 / 205

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187. How long must a donor wait after whole blood donation?

A. 16 Weeks

B. 24 Weeks

C. 56 days

D. 3 months

188 / 205

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188. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type O make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCs

Antibodies present in the serum

None

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

189 / 205

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189. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Patient with liver disease

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

190 / 205

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190. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, P and I blood group are enhanced by enzymes

191 / 205

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191. Which antigen(s) is enhanced by enzymes?

A. Rh

B. Kidd

C. Lewis

D. All of the above

192 / 205

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192. The only blood group system in which an individual have antibodies to antigens they lack, without any prior exposure of red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy is

A. Rh system

B. Lewis blood system

C. Duffy System

D. ABO blood system

193 / 205

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193. Which cells Agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin?

A. H antigen

B. A1 antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

194 / 205

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194. Which blood group antigen is located near the RBC membrane and present when S or s is inherited?

A. S antigen

B. G antigen

C. U Antigen

D. M antigen

195 / 205

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195. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	4+	0	3+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

196 / 205

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196. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

197 / 205

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197. Which immunohematology test is performed to determine in vitro sensitization of RBC’s?

A. Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

B. Direct Antiglobulin Test

C. Weak D

D. Elution

198 / 205

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198. What blood type can Bombay phenotype individual receive?

A. Type O Negative

B. Blood from only Bombay individuals

C. Type O positive

D. Group AB

199 / 205

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199. Which antibody can be neutralized with human breast milk?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Lewis

200 / 205

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200. What units are given in massive transfusion?

A. 4 packed O negative red blood cells, 2 AB fresh frozen plasma and 1 O negative platelet apheresis

B. 4 packed red blood cells, 2 cryoprecipitate and 1 platelet apheresis

C. 2 packed red blood cells, 2 fresh frozen plasma and 1 platelet apheresis

201 / 205

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201. Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Anti Fya-b-

D. Anti-Jkb

202 / 205

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202. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion.

IgA deficient patient with anti-IgA antibodies

A. Washed RBCs

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

D. Cryoprecipitate

203 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

203. Which of the following potentiator removes water from the test system and concentrates antibody?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

204 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

204. Which of the following would be a cause permanent deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Recipient of human growth hormone

C. History of Chagas’ disease

D. All of the above

205 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

205. Which of the following RBC abnormality is associated with Rh null syndrome?

A. Spherocytosis

B. Granulocytosis

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Elliptocytosis

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