Blood Bank QBank -

Our question bank has 203 multiple choice questions on all the essential blood transfusion topics. If you are planning on taking ASCP, I will recommend using our question bank. Topics includes ABO genetics, ABO blood group, Rh blood system, Other blood groups, component storage, antibody identification, antibody screening, crossmatch, donor requirements, ABO blood typing and more.

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Bloodbank Finals

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Category: Bloodbank

1. Kernicterus is caused by effect of?

A. Hypobilirubinemia

B. Hyperbilirubinemia

C. Anemia

D. Diabetes

Anti-P₁ is easily inhibited with P₁ substance(Hydatid cyst fluid)

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2. Which antibody is neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-P1

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3. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Fibrinogen deficiency?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma

C. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

D. Thawed Plasma

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4. No clumps with a very cloudy background. Grade this reaction

A. 3+

B. Negative

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. 4+

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5. Agglutinated cells begin to disperse into gel media and are concentrated near the top of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 2+

B. 1+

C. 4+

D. 3+

E. Negative

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6. Antigen that shows dosage must be rule out with?

A. Cold panel

B. Heterozygous

C. Homozygous cell

D. Auto adsorption

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7. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB, 25% Group O, 25% Group A and 25% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group A and 50% Group O

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8. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with liver disease?

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets

D. Granulocyte concentrates

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

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9. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a female donor?

A. Temperature of 99.5 F

B. Hematocrit of 28%

C. Weighs 110Ibs

D. Blood pressure 130/70mm Hg

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10. Vicia graminea has specificity for which antigen?

A. N antigen

B. M antigen

C. A1 antigen

D. H antigen

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11. Which antigen has a receptor for Haemophilus influenza?

A. Yta

B. Cra

C. Kna

D. AnWj

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12. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hemoglobin of 6g/dl?

A. Washed RBCS

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. RBCs

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13. All cells pass through the gel media forming a cell button at the bottom of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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14.

Which antibody is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A. Duffy

B. Kidd

C. Kell

D. MNS

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15. Which cells agglutinate most strongly with Dolichos biflorus lectin?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

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16. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A

Anti- B

Anti- D

Rh control

A1 cell

B cell

A. A positive

B. O positive

C. AB Positive

D. B positive

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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17. Which autoantibody is associated with Echinococcus granulosis?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-P1

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18. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a hematocrit of 20%.

A. RBCs

B. Washed RBCs

C. Cryoprecipitate

D. Platelets

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19. Which cells Agglutinate most strongly with Ulex europaeus lectin?

A. H antigen

B. A1 antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

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20. A 35-year-old pregnant woman has a routine ABO and Rh with the following results. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

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21. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin A?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

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22. What blood type is the universal donor?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

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23. Agglutinated cells disperse into gel media and are observed throughout the length of the microtube. Grade this gel reaction.

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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24. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	0	+	+	0

A. dCe; d, C, E

B. dcE; d, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. DCE; D, C, E

Anti P is cold reactive antibody; while others are warm reactive antibodies.

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25. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti Jka

B. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-S

D. Anti-P

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26. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is positive.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which donor unit should be selected?

	Immediate Spin	37^oC	Antiglobulin Phase
A positive	0	Not tested	Not tested
A negative	0	0	0; Check cell 2+
AB negative	0	0	0; Check cell 0
B negative	2+	2+	2+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

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27. What antigens are present in a person with blood type O?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

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28. Which antigen is the most immunogenic of Rh antigens?

A. E

B. e

C. D

D. c

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29. Which of the following carries a 12-month deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Donor Incarcerated for 10 days

C. Recipient of human growth hormone

D. Donor is HIV positive

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30. Which of the following RBC abnormality is associated with Rh null syndrome?

A. Spherocytosis

B. Granulocytosis

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Elliptocytosis

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31. What is the purpose of a crossmatch?

A. To detect the presence of antibodies in donor cells

B. To detect the presence of antigens in recipient's red blood cells against antibodies in donor units

C. To detect the presence of antibodies in recipient's serum against antigens in donor RBCs.

D. To prevent severe hemolytic anemia and death

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32. What are the 2 stages of agglutination reaction?

A. Sensitization and Lattice formation

B. Attachment and bonding

C. Sensitization and agglutination

D. Sensitization and Prozoning

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33. What is the temperature range for maintaining red blood cells and whole blood during shipping?

A. 20-24°C

B. 1-10°C

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-18°C

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34. ABO antibodies are

A. Naturally occurring and react at room temperature

B. Naturally occurring, activates complement, and reacts at 37oC

C. Acquired through blood transfusion and reacts at warmer temperature

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35. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

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36. Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes?

A. CMV

B. HIV

C. HCV

D. HAV

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37. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch?

	Immediate spin
AB Negative	0
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. AB negative

B. A negative

C. B negative

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38. Which of the following potentiator removes water from the test system and concentrates antibody?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

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39. Rh antigens are proteins, unlike ABO antigens which are glycolipids.

A. False

B. True

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40. Which of the following would be a cause permanent deferral?

A. Donor lived in UK for more than 3 months between 1980-1996

B. Recipient of human growth hormone

C. History of Chagas’ disease

D. All of the above

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41. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	4+	0	0	0

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

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42. Agglutination cells form a cell layer at the top of the gel media. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 4+

D. 1+

E. Negative

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43. What is biphasic hemolysin?

A. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement at 4°C

B. Binds to RBCs at low temperatures and activate complement at 37°C

C. Binds to RBCs at 37°C and activate complement

D. Activate complement at 37°C

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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44. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

D. Decrease in 2-3BPG levels

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth

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45. Which blood group antigen is well developed at birth?

A. P

B. Lu

C. Kidd

D. P1

While D antigen is the most immunogenic, c antigen is the next Rh antigen to elicit immune response followed by E, C, and e

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46. Which Rh antigen is the most immunogenic?

A. c

B. E

C. C

D. e

Anti Jka is warm antibody; while others are cold reactive antibodies.

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47. Which antibody does not fit with the others with respect to optimum phase of reactivity?

A. Anti M

B. Anti-P

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-Jka

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48. Which donor RBC unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

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49. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Patient with liver disease

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

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50. Which D phenotype is suspected when a seemingly D-positive person makes anti-D after transfusion with D-positive blood?

A. Partial D

B. Weak D

C. Rh null

D. D deletion

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51.

Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by lowering zeta potential and increasing the rate of antibody uptake?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

Duffy, MNS and Xga are destroyed by enzymes

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52. Which antigen is destroyed by enzymes?

A. Duffy

B. Rh

C. Kidd

D. Lewis

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53. Which of the following antibody is an IgG biphasic antibody in Donath-Landsteiner antibody test?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-P1

D. Lewis

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54. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of Cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 14 year s

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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55. One unit of donor platelets derived from whole blood should yield how many platelets?

A. 5.5 X 10^11

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3.0 X 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

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56. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of whole blood?

A. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 32 days

B. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 35 days

C. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 45 days

D. Storage 1-6°C with CPDA-1, 21 days

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57. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

A. DCe

B. DCE

C. dce

D. dCe

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58. Which blood group system does Anti-Jk^a and Anti-Jk^b belong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

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59. What are the two ways ABO typing can be performed?

A. Forward and front type

B. Reverse and back typing

C. Forward and Inverse typing

D. Forward and reverse typing

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60. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type AB, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

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61. Which blood group system does Anti-Js^a and Anti-Js ^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

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62. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

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63. How many platelets should platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis contain?

A. 5x10^11

B. 3x10^10

C. 3x10^11

D. 5x10^10

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64. When do you administer Rhogan to Rh negative mom after giving birth to Rh positive baby ?

A. Within 72 hours

B. 7 days

C. 21 days

D. two weeks

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65. Which condition is X- linked and is associated with abnormal RBC morphology, compensated hemolytic anemia, neurological and muscular abnormalities ?

A. Rh null

B. McLeod phenotype

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Graves Disease

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66. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin class?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

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67. What is the storage temperature and shelf life of Granulocyte pheresis?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 days

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires in 24 hours

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68. Which immunohematology test is performed to determine in vitro sensitization of RBC’s?

A. Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)

B. Direct Antiglobulin Test

C. Weak D

D. Elution

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69. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. O negative

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70. What blood type can Bombay phenotype individual receive?

A. Type O Negative

B. Blood from only Bombay individuals

C. Type O positive

D. Group AB

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71. Which autoantibody is associated with early abortion?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. anti-PP1pk

D. anti-PP1pk and anti-P

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72. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -28°C, expires in 1 year

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73. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 6 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 4 hours after pooling

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74. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C		E		c		e
+		+		+		0		0

A. R2: DCe;

B. R1 : DcE

C. r’’: dce

D. r: dCE

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75. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with neutropenia (<500 WBC/mm³)?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

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76. Which blood group antigen is located near the RBC membrane and present when S or s is inherited?

A. S antigen

B. G antigen

C. U Antigen

D. M antigen

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77. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type A make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. Anti C

D. Anti-A,B

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78. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of thawed fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 5 days

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

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79. Which donor RBC unit should be selected?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. O positive

B. AB positive

C. AB negative

D. O negative

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80. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

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81. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hemoglobin approximately by

A. 4 g/dL

B. 1 g/dL

C. 6 g/dL

D. 3 g/dL

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82. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen.

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	0

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

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83. Which of the following potentiator cause agglutination by reducing the zeta potential between RBCs?

A. Polyethylene glycol

B. Low Ionic Strength Solution

C. Proteolytic Enzymes

D. Bovine Serum Albumin (BSA)

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84. Which antigens are strongly expressed on placental tissues?

A. Yta

B. Chido

C. Cromer

D. AnWj

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85. What antigens are present in a person with type AB- blood?

A. A antigen

B. None

C. B antigens

D. A and B antigens

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86. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with INR>1.5

A. RBCs

B. Cryoprecipitate

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Washed RBCS

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87. The extract from seeds of Ulex Europeaus has specificity for?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. N antigen

D. M antigen

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88. What are the four main blood groups in the ABO blood group system?

A. Group A, B, C, AB

B. Group A, B, O, AB

C. Group A, B, D, AB

D. Group A, O,B, AD

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89. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. AB negative

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

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90. The two phases of humoral response are?

A. Innate and adaptive

B. Primary and Secondary

C. Primary and Tertiary

D. Immediate and Delayed

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91. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group AO and 50% Group BO

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% Group O

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

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92. Transfusing one unit of RBC increases patient's hematocrit by

A. 5%

B. 1%

C. 6%

D. 3%

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93. What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?

A. A antigen

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

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94. What is the temperature range for maintaining platelets during shipping?

A. 1-18°C

B. Room temperature

C. 1-12°C

D. 1-14°C

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95. Individuals with hh genotype, anti-A, anti-B anti-A, B, and Anti-H are

A. Group O

B. Bombay phenotype

C. Group Jka

D. Chiedos Blood System

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96. What is a massive transfusion?

A. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells in 8 hours, in a response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

B. Replacement by transfusion of 8-10 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

C. Replacement by transfusion of 10 units of red cells within 24 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

D. Replacement by transfusion of 12 units of red cells in 12 hours, in response to massive and uncontrolled hemorrhage

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97. What is the patient’s ABO, Rh, and antibody screen?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	3+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type AB, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type O, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type 0, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen positive

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

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98. Which blood group system is associated with McLeod phenotype?

A. Kidd

B. Kell

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

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99. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?

A. Storage -65°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -18°C, expires in 7 years

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 1 year

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100. Which blood group system is associated with Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Kell

D. Anti-Jkb

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101. In an emergency, what blood type should be given to Rh-negative females of childbearing age?

A. O Postive

B. O negative

C. AB negative

D. B negative

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102. Which antibody serologically mimics Anti-C and Anti D?

A. Anti-C

B. Anti-E

C. Anti-D

D. Anti- G

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Category: Bloodbank

103. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature?

A. 4 deg. Celsuis

B. 37 deg. Celsuis

C. 24 deg. Celsuis

D. 18 deg. Celsuis

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

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104. A man wants to donate blood. His physical examination reveals the following: weight—120 Ib, pulse—112 bpm, blood pressure—132/74 mm Hg, hematocrit—39%. Which of the following exclusions applies to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Weight too low

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

105 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

105. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

106 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

106. The antibody to this high prevalence antigen appears shiny and refractile under the microscope.

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Sda

C. Anti-I

D. Anti-V

107 / 205

Category: Coagulation

107. A hereditary thrombocytes disorder that is caused by lack of functional GPIb-IX-V complexes on the platelet surface, and is associated with presence of large platelets, increased MPV, decreased aggregation response to ristocetin, and normal vWF: RCo, vWF: Ag?

A. Von Williebrand disease

B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome

C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia

D. Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome

108 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

108. Which gene controls the expression of D expression?

A. RHCE

B. RHCD

C. RHCD

D. RHD

109 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

109. What preservative is used in ATP synthesis to maintain red blood cells stability?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

110 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

110. Medium clumps with a slightly cloudy background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 3+

C. 2+

D. 1+

E. Negative

111 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

111. The Rh systems genes are?

A. RHAG and RHD

B. RHD and RHCE

C. RHCE and RHRAG

112 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

112. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	4+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

113 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

113. What is deferral period for aspirin?

A. 7 days

B. 5 days

C. 72 hours

D. 2 weeks

114 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

114. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A and anti-B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

115 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

115. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Hemophilia A disorder.

A. Cryoprecipitated Antihemophilic Factor

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Thawed Plasma

116 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

116. Individuals with blood group O have

A. B antigens on their RBC's

B. A antigens on their RBC's

C. Anti-A antibody

D. Anti-A, B antibody

117 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

117. Which of the following are antibodies to low-frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Kpb, Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

118 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

118. An anticoagulant that chelates calcium to prevent clotting is called?

A. Citrate

B. Sodium biphosphate

C. Dextrose

D. Adenine

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

119 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

119. Which of the following would be cause for deferral for a male donor?

A. Temperature of 99.2 F

B. Hematocrit of 39%

C. Hemoglobin of 10.5g/dl

D. Blood pressure 180/90mm Hg

120 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

120. Which antibody is neutralized in vitro by Lewis substance?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Lewis

121 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

121. Solid button with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 4+

C. 1+

D. 2+

E. Negative

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

122 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

122. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Decrease in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

123 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

123. A Clinical Laboratory Scientist(CLS) receives a specimen with the patient's name, medical record number, and date of collection printed on the label. What should the CLS do?

A. Accept the specimen for testing

B. Reject specimen and ask for redraw

124 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

124. How long must a donor wait after whole blood donation?

A. 16 Weeks

B. 24 Weeks

C. 56 days

D. 3 months

125 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

125. An ABO type and screen on a patient give the following reactions. Assume the antibody screen is negative.

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

Which unit should be used to perform crossmatch? Immediate spin

A Positive	3+
A negative	3+
B negative	1+

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. None of the above

126 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

126. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB negative

D. B negative

127 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

127. Leukoreduced RBCs must contain less than______? Leukocytes and retain at least_____?

A. 5x10^10 and 90%

B. 5x10^6 and 85%

C. 5x10^11 and 85%

D. 5x10^6 and 75%

128 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

128. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (irradiated)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 28 days on originally assigned outdate

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 days

D. A and B

129 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

129. Identify the antibody.

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

130 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

130. Which gene controls the expression of C, c, E, e expression?

A. RHCD

B. RHD

C. RHCE

D. RHDC

131 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

131. The only blood group system in which an individual have antibodies to antigens they lack, without any prior exposure of red blood cells through transfusion or pregnancy is

A. Rh system

B. Lewis blood system

C. Duffy System

D. ABO blood system

132 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

132. What is being tested in forward typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

133 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

133. Iberus Amara has specificity for which antigen?

A. A1 antigen

B. H antigen

C. M antigen

D. N antigen

134 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

134. What type of immunoglobulin is anti-A,B?

A. IgM

B. IgA

C. IgG

D. IgE

135 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

135. Which Rh phenotype is written as D- - or -D- ?

A. Weak D

B. Rh null

C. D deletion

D. Partial D

136 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

136. The causative agent of Chagas disease is

A. Deer Fly

B. SandFly

C. Wuchereria bancrofti

D. Trypanosoma Cruzi

137 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

137. Which antibody can be neutralized with human breast milk?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-I

D. Lewis

138 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

138. What is the shelf life of blood component with CPDA-1 anticoagulant?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

139 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

139. Which blood group system do K and k antigens belong to?

A. Kell

B. Lutheran

C. Duffy

D. Kidd

140 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

140. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of pooled cryoprecipitate?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 12 hours after pooling

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires 4 hours after pooling

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires 5 days after pooling

D. Storage 20-24°C, expires 8 hours after pooling

141 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

141. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type O make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCs

Antibodies present in the serum

None

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

142 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

142. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group B, genotype BO

Dad’s phenotype is group O, genotype OO

A. 50% Group B and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group B and 50% Group O

143 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

143. How many drop(s) of a patient serum is added in reverse blood typing?

A. 4 drops

B. 1 drop

C. 5 drops

D. 2 drops

144 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

144.

A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	+	+	0

A. Dce; D, c, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. DcE; D, c, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

145 / 205

Category: History

145. A term used to describe the Middle colonies because of their fertile soil, ideal for farming is known as?

A. Sufficient colonies

B. Bountiful colonies

C. flourbasket colonies

D. Breadbasket colonies

146 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

146. Rh antibodies is associated with which clinical condition?

A. Hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn

B. Addison disease

C. Stomatocytosis

D. Hemophilia

147 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

147. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	4+	0	3+	0

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. B negative

D. O negative

148 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

148. Which of the following are antibodies to high frequency antigens?

A. Anti-Kpb

B. Anti-Jkb

C. Anti-Kpa and Anti Jsa

D. Anti-Lub, Anti-Kpb and Anti Jsb

149 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

149. Which blood group system do Anti-Fy^a and Anti-Fy^bbelong to?

A. Kell

B. Kidd

C. Duffy

D. Lutheran

150 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

150. Which is not included on a properly labeled specimen?

A. Date of admission

B. Two unique patient identifiers

C. Date and time of collection

D. Phlebotomist's initials

151 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

151. Predict the blood group using the information below.

Mom’s phenotype is group A, genotype AO

Dad’s phenotype is group B, genotype BB

A. 50% Group AB and 50% Group B

B. 25% AB and 75% group B

C. 100% AB

D. 50% Group AB and 50% Group O

152 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

152. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with a platelet count of <10.000u/L?

A. Fresh Frozen Plasma

B. Platelets

C. Washed RBCs

D. Granulocyte concentrates

Kidd, Duffy, MNS blood groups are known for showing dosage

153 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

153. Which of the following blood group antigens are known for showing dosage?

A. MNS

B. Duffy

C. Kidd

D. All of the above

154 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

154. Which transfusion reactions present with fever, maculopapular rash, pancytopenia?

A. Anaphylactic nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

B. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

C. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

D. Transfusion-Associated Graft-versus-Host Disease

Physical exam	Requirements	Physical exam	Requirements
Minimum Age	17 years Under 17 years needs parental consent	Blood pressure	180/100mmHg
Weight	110 Ibs	Pulse	50-100bpm
Hematocrit	38%	Temperature	99.5 ^OF (37.5^OC)
Hemoglobin (Women)	12.5g/dL	Hemoglobin (Men)	13.0g/dL

155 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

155. A woman wants to donate blood. Her physical examination reveals the following: temperature—39⁰C, pulse—53 bpm, blood pressure—125/75 mm Hg, hematocrit—38%. Which of the following exclusions apply to the prospective donor?

A. Pulse too high

B. Temperature too high

C. Hematocrit too low

D. Blood Pressure too low

156 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

156. Which antibody is neutralized by urine to allow detection of other alloantibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-V

157 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

157. What type of molecules are Rh antigens?

A. Glycophorins

B. Sugars

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

MN, Kidd, Duffy are well developed at birth while P and Lutheran blood group system are poorly developed at birth

158 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

158. Which blood group antigen is poorly developed at birth?

A. P

B. MN

C. Kidd

D. Duffy

MMM

159 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

159. Blood proteins produced by the immune system in response to a foreign substance in the body are called?

A. Antigens

B. Antibodies

C. Immunogens

D. Immune cells

160 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

160. Many small clumps with a cloudy background. Grade the reaction

A. 2+

B. 4+

C. 3+

D. 1+

E. Negative

Rh, Kidd, Lewis, P and I blood group are enhanced by enzymes

161 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

161. Which antigen(s) is enhanced by enzymes?

A. Rh

B. Kidd

C. Lewis

D. All of the above

162 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

162. What type of crossmatch should be performed? Below is the result of an antibody screen

Screening cell 1	Screening cell 2	Screening cell 3
0	0	2+

A. Immediate Spin

B. Extended Crossmatch

163 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

163. What tests are performed before a blood transfusion is done?

A. ABO Typing and crossmatch

B. Antibody screen and crossmatch

C. Type and screen, DAT

D. ABO, Rh, Antibody Screen and Crossmatch

164 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

164. What blood type is the universal recipient?

A. Group type A

B. Group type O

C. Group type AB

D. Group type B

165 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

165. What is the component of choice for transfusion for a patient with Sickle cell anemia?

A. Washed RBCS

B. RBCs

C. Fresh frozen plasma

D. Cryoprecipitate

The genes GYPA codes for glycophorin A for blood group M and N

The genes GYPB codes for glycophorin B for blood group S and s

166 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

166. Which blood group system is produced by glycophorin B?

A. MNS

B. Ss

C. Lewis

D. MN

167 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

167. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

168 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

168. How long must a donor wait after plasma donation?

A. 7 days

B. 28 days

C. 8 Weeks

D. 24 hours

169 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

169. Agglutinated cells disperse throughout the gel media and concentrate towards the bottom of the microtube. Grade the reaction.

A. 3+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. 4+

E. Negative

170 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

170. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CPD anticoagulants?

A. 21 days

B. 35 days

C. 42 days

D. 24 days

171 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

171. Unlike ABO antibodies, anti- D antibody is produced through exposure to D antigen through transfusion or pregnancy and can cause significant hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn (HDFN) or hemolytic transfusion reaction.

A. True

B. False

172 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

172. Which blood type is recommended by AABB Standards to be given to all weak-D recipients?

A. D-negative donor unit

B. D positive donor unit

C. Weak D donor unit

D. Partial D donor unit

173 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

173. Which donor red blood cell unit should be selected first?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	4+	0

A. B positive

B. A positive

C. B negative

D. A negative

174 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

174. What antigens are present in a person with type A- blood?

A. A antigens

B. B antigens

C. AB antigens

D. None

175 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

175. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion.

IgA deficient patient with anti-IgA antibodies

A. Washed RBCs

B. Irradiated RBCs

C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)

D. Cryoprecipitate

176 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

176. Use table below to answer this question. What type of antibody will blood type AB make?

Blood group

Antigen(s) on RBCS

Antibodies present in the serum

A and B

A. Anti-A

B. Anti-B

C. None

D. Anti-A,B

177 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

177. What is the result of the ABO, Rh, and antibody screen test?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	0	0	0	4+

Screening cell 1

Screening cell 2

Screening cell 3

A. Type A, Rh positive, Antibody screen negative

B. Type B, Rh positive, Antibody screen positive

C. Type B, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

D. Type A, Rh negative, Antibody screen negative

178 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

178. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
+	0	0	+	+

A. DCE; D, C, e

B. DcE; D, c, E

C. DCe; D, C, e

D. Dce; D, c, e

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

179 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

179. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Decrease in plasma K+

C. Decrease in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

180 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

180. Which antigen is expressed when c and e are present on the same haplotype?

A. G antigen

B. f antigen

C. D antigen

D. E antigen

181 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

181. What units are given in massive transfusion?

A. 4 packed O negative red blood cells, 2 AB fresh frozen plasma and 1 O negative platelet apheresis

B. 4 packed red blood cells, 2 cryoprecipitate and 1 platelet apheresis

C. 2 packed red blood cells, 2 fresh frozen plasma and 1 platelet apheresis

182 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

182. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	4+	0	4+	4+

A. O positive

B. A positive

C. AB positive

D. B negative

183 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

183. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
4+	0	4+	0	0	3+

A. A and AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

184 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

184. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of RBCs (deglycerolized)?

A. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 24 hours after thawing

B. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 8 hours after thawing

C. Storage 1-6°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

D. Storage 1-10°C, expires in 48 hours after thawing

185 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

185.

When does a pretransfusion specimen expire?

A. 7 days

B. 3 Days

C. 2 days

D. 2 Weeks

186 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

186. A patient’s red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping. Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype?

D	C	E	c	e
0	+	0	0	+

A. DCe; D, C, e

B. dCe; d, C, e

C. Dce; D, C, E

D. DCE; D, C, E

187 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

187. What genes are necessary for the production of Le^bAntigens?

A. Se genes

B. Le and Se genes

C. H genes

D. H and Se genes

188 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

188. How often can you donate platelets?

A. 24 times a year

B. 24 hours

C. 8 Weeks

D. 2 weeks

189 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

189. Which blood group system is associated with resistance to P. vivax malaria?

A. Anti P

B. Anti- Fya

C. Anti Fya-b-

D. Anti-Jkb

190 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

190. Which antibody can be neutralized with pooled plasma to allow detection of other antibodies?

A. Anti- Yta

B. Anti-Lu

C. Anti-Sda

D. Anti-Ch (Chido)

191 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

191. An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions. What is the patient’s blood type?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh	A1 cell	B cell
4+	3+	0	0	0	0

A. A positive

B. A negative

C. AB negative

D. O negative

192 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

192. What do Rh null cells lack?

A. A antigens

B. Lewis Antigens

C. Hemoglobin

D. Rh antigens

193 / 205

Category: Physics

193. A term used to describe the study of motion is called?

A. Velocity

B. Mechanics

C. Kinematics

D. Acceleration

194 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

194. What are the required storage temperature and shelf life of frozen red blood cells?

A. Storage-18°C, expires in 7 years

B. Storage -65°C, expires in 1 year

C. Storage -65°C, expires in 10 years

D. Storage -18°C, expires in 10 years

195 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

195. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	0	0	0	3+	3+

A. A positive

B. B positive

C. AB positive

D. O, A, B, AB negative

196 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

196. What is being tested in reverse typing?

A. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antibodies present

B. Patient's serum to detect ABO antibodies present

C. Patient's red cells to detect ABO antigens present

D. Patient's serum to detect ABO antigens present

197 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

197. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with Adsol (AS-1, AS-3, orAS-5) anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

198 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

198. Which Plasma donor unit can the patient receive?

Anti-A	Anti- B	Anti- D	Rh control	A1 cell	B cell
0	4+	0	0	3+	0

A. AB positive

B. B negative

C. B and AB negative

D. O, A, B, AB plasma

199 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

199. What are the storage temperature and shelf life of platelets?

A. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

B. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 2 days

C. Storage 20-28°C with rotation, expires in 5 days

D. Storage 20-24°C with rotation, expires in 24 hours

200 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

200. What is the allowable shelf life of blood with CP2D anticoagulants?

A. 42 days

B. 35 days

C. 21 days

D. 24 days

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

201 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

201. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"?

A. Increase in pH

B. Increase in plasma K+

C. Increase in plasma Na+

D. Decrease in plasma hemoglobin

202 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

202. Large clumps with clear background. Grade the reaction.

A. 4+

B. 2+

C. 1+

D. Negative

E. 3+

203 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

203. For the following patient, indicate the component of choice for transfusion therapy. Immunodeficient recipient

A. Irradiated RBCs

B. Fresh frozen plasma

C. Platelets frozen plasma

D. Granulocyte concentrates

204 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

204. Platelet concentrates prepared by apheresis should contain how many platelets?

A. 3 x 10^10

B. 5.5 X 10^10

C. 3 x 10^11

D. 5.5 X 10^6

Plasma hemoglobin, ammonia, and K+ levels increases

Plasma Na+, pH and 2,3-BPG levels decreases.

205 / 205

Category: Bloodbank

205. Which autoantibody specificity is found in patients with infectious mononucleosis?

A. Auto anti I

B. Anti P

C. Anti i

D. Anti Pk

Your score is

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